1. The nurse is monitoring a client following a lung resection. The hourly output from the chest tube was 300mL. The nurse should give priority to:

  • Turning the client to the left side
  • Milking the tube to ensure patency
  • Slowing the intravenous infusion
  • Notifying the physician

2. A 52-year-old man is admitted to a hospital after sustaining a severe head injury in an automobile accident. When the patient dies, the nurse observes the patient’s wife comforting other family members. Which of the following interpretations of this behavior is MOST justifiable?

  • She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process.
  • She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death.
  • She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death.
  • She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death.

3. A newly diagnosed patient with Cancer says “I hate Cancer, why did God give it to me”. Which stage of grief process is this?

  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression

4. Susan’s passed away. Susan handled this death by crying and withdrawing from friend and family. As A nurse you would notice that sue’s intensified grief is most likely a sign of which type of grief?

  • Distorted or exaggerated Grief
  • Anticipatory Grief
  • Chronic or Prolonged Grief
  • Delayed or Inhibited Grief

5. A client with an abdominal cholecystectomy returns from surgery with a Jackson-Pratt drain. The chief purpose of the Jackson-Pratt drain is to:

  • Prevent the need for dressing changes
  • Reduce edema at the incision
  • Provide for wound drainage
  • Keep the common bile duct open

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1. Which of the following would indicate an infection?

  • Hot, sweaty, a temperature of 36.5°C, and bradycardic.
  • Temperature of 38.5°C, shivering, tachycardia and hypertensive.
  • Raised WBC, elevated blood glucose and temperature of 36.0°C.
  • Hypotensive, cold and clammy, and bradycardic.

2. When disposing of waste, what colour bag should be used to dispose of offensive/ hygiene waste?

  • Orange
  • Yellow
  • Yellow and black stripe
  • Black

3. Which of the following best describes the Contingency Theory of Leadership?

  • Leaders behaviour influence team members
  • Leaders grasp the whole picture and their respective roles
  • The plan is influenced by the outside force
  • The leader sees the kind of situation, the setting, and their roles

4. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a newborn Caucasian male delivered at 32 weeks gestation. The nurse can expect to find the presence of:

  • Mongolian spots
  • Scrotal rugae
  • Head lag
  • Polyhydramnios

5. A diabetic multigravida is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation to determine the L/S ratio and phosphatidyl glycerol level. The L/S ratio is 1:1 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol is noted. The nurse’s assessment of this data is:

  • The infant is at low risk for congenital anomalies.
  • The infant is at high risk for intrauterine growth retardation.
  • The infant is at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
  • The infant is at high risk for birth trauma.

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1. The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 1 para 0 in labour. Which one would be most appropriate for the primagravida as she completes the early phase of labour?

  • Impaired gas exchange related to hyperventilation
  • Alteration in placental perfusion related to maternal position
  • Impaired physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment
  • Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake

2. A client with a missed abortion at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. The client will most likely be treated with:

  • Magnesium sulfate
  • Calcium gluconate
  • Dinoprostone (Prostin E.)
  • Bromocrystine (Parlodel)..

3. A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?

  • The urethral opening is absent
  • The urethra opens on the top side of the penis
  • The urethral opening is enlarged
  • The urethra opens on the under side of the penis

4. The nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client with pre­ eclampsia. Which method is used to elicit the biceps reflex?

  • The nurse places her thumb on the muscle inset in the antecubital space and taps the thumb briskly with the reflex hammer.
  • The nurse loosely suspends the client’s arm in an open hand while tapping the back of the client’s elbow.
  • The nurse instructs the client to dangle her legs as the nurse strikes the area below the patella with the blunt side of the reflex hammer.
  • The nurse instructs the client to place her arms loosely at her side as the nurse strikes the muscle insert just above the wrist.

5. The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to:

  • Notify her doctor.
  • Start an IV.
  • Reposition the client.
  • Readjust the monitor.

Read more: CBT Mock Test #9 - Scotland 2024

1. What is the most accurate method of calculating a respiratory rate?

  • Counting the number of respiratory cycles in 15 seconds and multiplying by 4.
  • Counting the number of respiratory cycles in 1 minute. One cycle is equal to the complete rise and fall of the patient's chest.
  • Not telling the patient as this may make them conscious of their breathing pattern and influence the accuracy of the rate.
  • Placing your hand on the patient's chest and counting the number of respiratory cycles in 30 seconds and multiplying by 2

2. What is respiration?

  • the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’
  • movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’
  • movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from the cells to the blood
  • the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.

3. What should be included in a prescription for oxygen therapy?

  • You don't need a prescription for oxygen unless in an emergency.
  • The date it should commence, the doctor's signature and bleep number.
  • The type of oxygen delivery system, inspired oxygen percentage and duration of the therapy.
  • You only need a prescription if the patient is going to have home oxygen

4. Prior to sending a patient home on oxygen, healthcare providers must ensure the patient and family understand the dangers of smoking in an oxygen-rich environment. Why is this necessary?

  • It is especially dangerous to the patient's health to smoke while using oxygen
  • Oxygen is highly flammable and there is a risk of fire
  • Oxygen and cigarette smoke can combine to produce a poisonous mixture
  • Oxygen can lead to an increased consumption of cigarette

5. Why is it essential to humidify oxygen used during respiratory therapy?

  • Oxygen is a very hot gas so if humidification isnt used, the oxygen will burn the respiratory tract and cause considerable pain for the patient when they breathe.
  • Oxygen is a dry gas which can cause evaporation of water from the respiratory tract and lead to thickened mucus in the airways, reduction of the movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
  • Humidification cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from any aerobic pathogens before it is inhaled by the patient.

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1. The most commonly injured carpal bone is:

  • the scaphoid bone
  • the triquetral bone
  • the pisiform bone
  • the hamate bone

2. Mr Smith’s daughter rang and wanted to visit him. She told you of her diarrhoea and vomiting in the last 24 hours. How will you best respond to her about visiting Mr Smith?

  • allow her to visit and use alcohol gel before contact with him
  • visit him when she feels better
  • visit him when she is symptom free after 48 hours
  • allow her to visit only during visiting times only

3. One of the government initiative in promoting good healthy living is eating the right and balanced food. Which of the following can achieve this?

  • 24/7 exercise programme
  • 5-a-day fruits and vegetable portions
  • low calorie diet
  • high protein diet

4. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhoea but has no pyrexia. What is likely to be the cause?

  • The feed
  • An infection
  • Food poisoning
  • Being in hospital

5. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?

  • Complete an abdominal assessment
  • Administer an anti-nausea a medication
  • Notify the physician
  • Collect a stool sample

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1. Safe moving and handling of an anaesthetized patient is imperative to reduce harm to both the patient and staff. What is the minimum number of staff required to provide safe manual handling of a patient in theatre?

  • 3 (1 either side, 1 at head).
  • 5 (2 each side, 1 at head).
  • 4 (1 each side, 1 at head, 1 at feet).
  • 6 (2 each side, 1 at head, 1 at feet).

2. An 18 year old 26 week pregnant woman who uses illicit drugs frequently, the factors in risk for which one of the following:

  • Spina bifida
  • Meconium aspiration
  • Pneumonia
  • Teratogenicity

3. A patient has just returned to the unit from surgery. The nurse transferred him to his bed but did not put up the side rails. The patient fell and was injured. What kind of liability does the nurse have?

  • None
  • Negligence
  • Intentional tort
  • Assault and battery

4. What serious condition is a possibility for patients positioned in the Lloyd Davies position during surgery?

  • Stroke
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Compartment syndrome
  • There are no drawbacks to the Lloyd Davies position

5. Gurgling sound from airway in a postoperative client indicates what

  • Complete obstruction of lower airway
  • Partial obstruction of upper airway
  • Common sign of a post-operative patient

Read more: Online CBT Practice Test #8 - Wales 2024